Project management | Operations Management homework help

 
   

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1. A key objective of change control in configuration management is to keep track of actions taken in response to change requests.
[removed]   a. true
[removed]   b. false

Q2. A key weakness of the Benefit-Cost ratio project selection mechanism is that:
[removed]   a. It only focuses on things that can be measured
[removed]   b. It takes time frame into consideration
[removed]   c. It is too much based on subjective judgment
[removed]   d. It does not entail prioritizing

Q3. Good functional requirements
[removed]   a. Describe how the deliverable should be developed
[removed]   b. Provide detailed technical insights into what the deliverable will do
[removed]   c. Describe what the deliverable looks like and what it should do
[removed]   d. Are created after development of the technical specifications

Q4. A project can be terminated prematurely because the original objectives may no longer be valid.
[removed]   a. true
[removed]   b. false

Q5. A tool that graphically shows cost variance is:
[removed]   a. A chart of accounts
[removed]   b. A code of accounts
[removed]   c. A histogram (also called a resource loading chart)
[removed]   d. A cumulative cost curve (also called S-curve)

Q6. In resource planning, one of the issues that needs to be considered is:
[removed]   a. Staff empowerment
[removed]   b. Technical requirements of the project
[removed]   c. Theory X management principles
[removed]   d. Theory Y management principles

Q7. When crashing a project, we typically choose critical path tasks whose costs of crashing are highest.
[removed]   a. true
[removed]   b. false

Q8. The poor man’s hierarchy is a method for:
[removed]   a. Project estimation
[removed]   b. Project scheduling
[removed]   c. WBS construction
[removed]   d. Project selection

Q9. Ensuring a one-to-one correspondence between specification items and general design items is a feature of:
[removed]   a. Scope statement definition
[removed]   b. WBS construction
[removed]   c. Rapid prototyping
[removed]   d. Configuration management

Q10. The astute project manager typically uses only one management style in order not to confuse his/her teammates.
[removed]   a. true
[removed]   b. false

Q11. Structured Walk-Through is a methodology used in:
[removed]   a. PERT
[removed]   b. GERT
[removed]   c. VERT
[removed]   d. Project Evaluation

Q12. If EV = $300, AC = $400, and the project budget is $1,000, what is the estimated final cost of the project (this is known as EAC, estimate at complete)?
[removed]   a. $750
[removed]   b. $1,000
[removed]   c. $1,250
[removed]   d. $1,333

Q13. If review of a project’s status indicates that EV = $400, AC = $400, and PV = $500, the project is:
[removed]   a. On budget, behind schedule
[removed]   b. On budget, ahead of schedule
[removed]   c. Over budget, behind schedule
[removed]   d. Over budget, ahead of schedule

Q14. In project management, the level of uncertainty plays a major role in determining the adequacy of a project plan.
[removed]   a. true
[removed]   b. false

Q15. The purpose of mid-project evaluation is:
[removed]   a. Continual monitoring of budget and estimates
[removed]   b. To focus on achievement of individual element of the project plan
[removed]   c. To determine whether the original objectives are still relevant
[removed]   d. To re-baseline the project budget

Q16. Confidence in the accuracy of a cost estimate increases when top-down and bottom-up estimates converge.
[removed]   a. true
[removed]   b. false

Q17. Milestones, like tasks, consume resources.
[removed]   a. true
[removed]   b. false

Q18. A project team structure that closely reflects the physical structure of the deliverable is known as:
[removed]   a. Egoless
[removed]   b. Specialty
[removed]   c. Surgical
[removed]   d. Isomorphic

Q19. Which of the following is an example of a project?
[removed]   a. Maintaining e-mail addresses
[removed]   b. Capacity planning
[removed]   c. Submitting travel and expense reports
[removed]   d. Sending monthly reports to top management

Q20. The critical path:
[removed]   a. Provides the duration of a project
[removed]   b. Has the shortest duration on a project
[removed]   c. Is the most expensive path to implement
[removed]   d. Contains the project’s most significant tasks

Q21. In risk management, insurance is an example of:
[removed]   a. Risk avoidance
[removed]   b. Risk deflection
[removed]   c. Risk acceptance
[removed]   d. Contingency planning

Q22. The bottom-most level of the WBS — the level at which project budget and schedule data are captured — is called:
[removed]   a. Work package
[removed]   b. Code of accounts
[removed]   c. Budget baseline
[removed]   d. Change control level

Q23. What is the function of a change control board (CCB) in configuration management?
[removed]   a. To assess the management impacts of change requests
[removed]   b. To initiate changes needed on the project
[removed]   c. To focus on the technical implication of change requests
[removed]   d. To approve change requests coming from senior management

Q24. A major strength of task Gantt charts is that they can:
[removed]   a. Offer a sophisticated model of a project
[removed]   b. Show how many resources will be used on the project
[removed]   c. Show the interdependencies of tasks
[removed]   d. Show actual versus planned schedule status

Q25. Functional requirements provide us with detailed technical specifications.
[removed]   a. true
[removed]   b. false

Q26. A laissez-faire management style may lead to a ship without rudder syndrome.
[removed]   a. true
[removed]   b. false

Q27. The resource planning tool that enables us to identify who we need to carry out what tasks is called:
[removed]   a. A resource Gantt chart
[removed]   b. A resource matrix (also called the responsibility chart)
[removed]   c. A resource ogive
[removed]   d. A resource loading chart (also called a resource histogram)

Q28. When we have objective data on the probability of an event, we are involved with decision making under certainty.
[removed]   a. true
[removed]   b. false

Q29. Which of the following is a scope planning tool?
[removed]   a. Benefit/cost analysis
[removed]   b. WBS
[removed]   c. Earned Value analysis
[removed]   d. Fast tracking

Q30. The Theory X approach to managing workers is a classic example of a top-down view of how people should be managed.
[removed]   a. true
[removed]   b. false

Q31. Scope creep means:
[removed]   a. Needs emergence and identification
[removed]   b. Uncontrolled changes to a project’s requirements during project execution
[removed]   c. Migration of project needs to requirements
[removed]   d. Imprecise scope statement

Q32. An objective of prototyping is to minimize life-cycle cost.
[removed]   a. true
[removed]   b. false

Q33. Concurrent engineering involves overlapping tasks and phases to accelerate a project’s schedule.
[removed]   a. true
[removed]   b. false

Q34. Bottom-up estimates:
[removed]   a. Are based on historical trends
[removed]   b. Can be derived from the WBS
[removed]   c. Must employ Monte Carlo simulation
[removed]   d. a and c

Q35. Using working time or elapsed time to calculate the time it will take to complete a task produces the same results.
[removed]   a. true
[removed]   b. false

Q36. There is a definite link between the level of risk an enterprise encounters and project time frame.
[removed]   a. true
[removed]   b. false

Q37. A modern view in Human Resource Management is that positive motivation results from an opportunity to achieve and experience self-actualization.
[removed]   a. true
[removed]   b. false

Q38. The type of management whose focus is on activities whose variances lie outside the acceptable range is:
[removed]   a. Management by Objectives
[removed]   b. Management by Exception
[removed]   c. Management by Walking Around
[removed]   d. Management by Control Limits

Q39. Which of the following shows resource allocation over time?
[removed]   a. Resource Gantt chart
[removed]   b. Resource matrix
[removed]   c. S-Curve
[removed]   d. Resource leveling

Q40. Which of the following is a characteristic of an effective reporting system?
[removed]   a. SMART
[removed]   b. KISS
[removed]   c. MBO
[removed]   d. LOWBALLING

Q41. If the latest time you can start a task is five hours into the project, and the earliest time is three and a half hours into the project, how much slack (also called float) does the task have?
[removed]   a. 0.5 hours
[removed]   b. 1.5 hours
[removed]   c. 2.5 hours
[removed]   d. 8.5 hours

Q42. Internal Rate of Return (IRR) is the discount rate that sets the present value of cash outflow equal to the present value of cash inflow.
[removed]   a. true
[removed]   b. false

Q43. Configuration management is a:
[removed]   a. Methodology for working closely with customers by developing and updating requirements for faster response to changing customer needs
[removed]   b. Methodology for ensuring that requirements evolve with evolving customer requirements
[removed]   c. Methodology for specifying requirements at the outset and for controlling very tightly any changes to them
[removed]   d. Methodology for specifying requirements at the outset and for facilitating any changes to them with minimum customer input

Q44. According to PMI, a WBS should focus on
[removed]   a. Tasks
[removed]   b. Deliverables
[removed]   c. Interrelationships among activities
[removed]   d. Cost of the project

Q45. Under what conditions may a project manager accept a change request?
[removed]   a. If the request has no effect on project objectives, deadlines, or resources
[removed]   b. If the request has no effect on project objectives, although it has effects on deadlines and resources
[removed]   c. If the request is coming from a valued customer
[removed]   d. If the request is from the Chief Executive Officer

Q46. Which of the following methods involves performing tasks in parallel?
[removed]   a. Crashing
[removed]   b. Fast tracking
[removed]   c. Leveling
[removed]   d. Hammocking

Q47. Top-down estimates (also called parametric estimates):
[removed]   a. Are based on historical trends
[removed]   b. Can be derived from the WBS
[removed]   c. Can be determined by analyzing work packages
[removed]   d. Provide accurate assessments of project costs

Q48. Under rapid prototyping (also called application prototyping), the customer actually sees and works with the deliverable as it evolves.
[removed]   a. true
[removed]   b. false

Q49. Definitive estimates are generally derived from:
[removed]   a. Bottom-up estimates
[removed]   b. Top-down estimates
[removed]   c. Expert judgment cost estimates
[removed]   d. Order of magnitude estimates

Q50. An effective project manager must:
[removed]   a. Tell his team members what to do
[removed]   b. Be the most capable person on the team technically
[removed]   c. Be focused on achieving results
[removed]   d. Not trust his team members to achieve results without his personal attention to detail